Urgent legal advise !

[Lez72]

More importantly, if a vehicle is being driven on a road without a current, valid MOT then your insurance can become invalid.

Sorry, but that's wrong. An insurance company cannot invalidate insurance for having no MOT. Nearly all companies refer to "roadworthiness" in the policy wording, nothing about MOT; only a very few stipulate this. Just checked the three policies I have and they don't mention MOT and it's accepted that an MOT certificate is not proof of roadworthiness. In any case, you'd only be asked to send the MOT if the car was written off and at most, you'd get a lower valuation.


Google it if you don't believe me.


Snapper, I wouldn't bother taking this any further. The lorry certainly won't have been damaged and the chances of the lorry driver admitting to his company he's had a prang and/or recording your wife's reg number are almost zero. If your wife got no details of the lorry, the police aren't going to be interested. If you claim on the insurance, then your excess will probably be the cost of the repair and you can look forward to an increased premium next year and possible loss of no claims bonus.

Sorry, but that's right. I didn't make any mention about it stating anything about an MOT on an insurance certificate. I stated that the vehicle would need to be in a roadworthy condition and that a current MOT was the only way an insurance company would have in gauging whether the vehicle may be roadworthy or not. Its not a hard and fast rule due to the fact that a vehicle can pass an MOT and within a few minutes of it leaving the MOT station a headlight bulb could blow (for example) and it would therefore fail an MOT. I don't need to google it as I deal with it on a daily basis.
Look at it like this, If your insurance certificate makes mention of your vehicle having to be in a roadworthy condition to be fully covered under the terms of your policy, how exactly would they gauge this ?